Tim Tyler wrote:
> Bob O'Hara <bob.ohara@nospam.helsinki.fi> wrote or quoted:
>
>>Tim Tyler wrote:
>>
>>>>>Popularisers should make explicit the behaviour is what
>>>>>happens as the population size tends towards infinity -
>>>>>and not attempt to pass it off as an effect in an
>>>>>infinite population.
>>>>
>>>>But it is - in finite populations, you get an excess of
>>>>homozygotes, as any student of population genetics
>>>>should know.
>>>
>>>Any mention of gene frequencies in an infinite population
>>>is nonsense - as I stated originally.
>>>
>>>You can't talk about a fraction of an infinite population
>>>having a trait. You would get different results for that
>>>fraction depending on how you enumerated through the
>>>population.
>>
>>I don't understand what you mean, but by that argument,
>>you can't even define a fraction or a probability.
>
>
> Fractions have nothing to do with infinite sets.
>
But there are an infinite number of fractions, so they have
at least that to do with infinite sets.
>
>>>It's like claiming that half the integers are even.
>>
>>Err, they are. There are just rather a lot of them.
>
>
> No, there aren't.
>
> There are an infinite number of even numbers.
>
> There are an infinite number of odd numbers.
>
> Divide infinity by infinity and the result is
> indeterminate.
>
If there are an equal number of even and odd numbers, then
half of the numbers must be even.
This must be true because for every even number, I can add
1 and get an odd number. Conversely for every odd number I
can add 1 and get an even number. Hence, by the operation
of adding 1, I can produce an even number for every odd
number and vice versa. Ergo, half of all numbers are even,
and half are odd.
I find this sort of proof preferable to throwing my hands up
in defeat.
<snip>
>>>No serious mathematician can talk about fractions of
>>>infinite sets and expect to be taken seriously.
>>
>>But they do.
>
>
> No - not unless the fractions are "zero" or "one".
>
Rubbish, unless you're denying the existence of fractions.
Fractions are fractions of an infinite set, because there is
an infinite number of numbers between 0 and 1 (proof: take
the reciprocal of every positive integer).
>
>>It's how probability is defined as a concept.
>
>
> Probability is defined as a mathematical limit, as N
> approaches infinity.
>
> That uses a limit as a finite set increases in size - not
> a fraction of an infinite set.
>
> E.g. see:
>
>
http://www.wordiq.com/definition/Probability
>
This doesn't show that probability is defined as a
limit - the nearest you get is in the section
"Probability in mathematics", where they use "one
approach" to give an interpretation - essentially, the
frequentist approach. Note that when they discuss
Kolmonogorov's definition of probability as a measure,
they make no mention of any limits.
>
>>I have a colleague who even wrote mathematical papers
>>about fractions of uncountable sets.
>
>
> If you can show me, I should be able to tell you if they
> contain the fallacy under discussion.
>
> Probably he doesn't do that at all - and instead uses
> a limit.
>
This was (I think - my copy is at home) the paper:
E. Arjas & E. Nummelin & R.L. Tweedie: Semi-Markov processes
on a general state space -theory and quasi-stationarity.
J. Aust. Math. Soc. (Series A) 30 (1980): 187 - 200.
>
>>Infinity is a difficult concept (I know - there are lots
>>of it I don't understand), so I think one should be
>>cautious about making any pronouncements on it unless one
>>is sure about what mathematics does and does not say on
>>the subject.
>
>
> How is that relevant?
>
You're trying to argue about the use of infinity. I'm
pointing out that one should be careful when doing this.
This seems relevant.
> Are you suggesting I don't know what I am talking about?
>
> That is not the case.
Your evidence for this is?
Bob
--
Bob O'Hara
Dept. of Mathematics and Statistics
E.A. Box 4 (Yliopistonkatu 5) FIN-00014 University of
Helsinki Finland Telephone: +358-9-191 23743 Mobile:
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