Help me understand how or why the judge would make such a ruling concerning destruction of evidence. I can appreciate that if doping wasn't a crime under Spanish law at the time the evidence was taken, there would be no more federal charges against any athlete. But why should the court not hand over the evidence to the Spanish anti-drug agency (AEA?) to use as they see fit? Even if there were some outside influences on the judge, she must have some legal logic to justify the decision. Wonder if the average sports fan on the streets of Madrid or Barcelona even cares about Operation Puerto anymore.  All this must seem pretty insignificant now in a country in the midst of a severe recession....maybe depression is the more accurate word.Â