Not that Zappers #'s are right (although they may be), but I what you are talking about here is GSP per capita. Individual avg. income is not the same thing. For example government workers, lawyers
, and welfare recipients receive income even though they produce nothing. There should be at least a weak correlation between GSP per capita and avg. income (as you already stated it is a measure of reletive wealth), but perhaps not. Don't think that changes the pointlessness of the argument, but it can help explain the large discrepancy between the two viewpoints.