On Sun, 08 Jan 2006, Just zis Guy, you know? <
[email protected]> wrote:
> On 08 Jan 2006 19:00:44 GMT, Ian Smith <[email protected]> said in
> <[email protected]>:
>
> >I remain extremely sceptical that more than half of cyclists have
> >above average salaries. As noted, I'm willing to believe cyclists
> >have a higher average salary than the population as a whole, but I
> >doubt that most cyclists have above average salaries.
>
> I'm not sure the difference makes a difference. FWIW I have an
> above-average salary.
Of course it does. Very few people have above-average income (from
memory, 17% in the UK), because a very very few people have very very
large salaries.
To say more than half of cyclists have an above average income is a
very different statement than to say the average income of cyclists is
above the average for the population as a whole. One means that over
half of cyclists are drawn from the highest-earning 17% of the
population. The other can be satisfied drawing just one person (that
phone chappie, presumably) from the highest-earning 17%, while all the
rest have average income. Assuming a continuous distribution
resembling even remotely something like normal, I think the former
implies a much higher 'typical' income than the latter.
Depending what you mean by "makes a difference". If the sole purpose
of citing the statistic is to feel smug about riding a bike, no, it
probably doesn't make a difference.
regards, Ian SMith
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