Hi , first post. I'm not a racer, but I've been watching the TDF all this week. And I'm confused.
All week I thought the race finished tomorrow (Sunday). But at the end of today's time trial the commentators basically inferred that the race was finished and Landis had won.
So checked the official website at www.letour.fr. Seems tomorrow's stage is a 154.5km ordinary stage into Paris. There was no mention about it being non-competitive.
Now I wouldn't have thought that Landis's lead over Pereiro (or a bunch of other) would be insurmountable over 150+km. So I Googled the matter.
Depending on the source, it seems the final stage has been non-competitive since 1970 or 1975.
But nowhere can I find WHY. Apparently there is nothing in the official rules that declares the final stage non-competitive.
So the way I see it, if Pereiro, Kloden, Sastre, Evans or Menchov decided to break, and beat the peleton (assuming Landis stays in there) by the required margin, there is nothing to stop him being declared the winner.
Can somebody tell me why this is not the case?
All week I thought the race finished tomorrow (Sunday). But at the end of today's time trial the commentators basically inferred that the race was finished and Landis had won.
So checked the official website at www.letour.fr. Seems tomorrow's stage is a 154.5km ordinary stage into Paris. There was no mention about it being non-competitive.
Now I wouldn't have thought that Landis's lead over Pereiro (or a bunch of other) would be insurmountable over 150+km. So I Googled the matter.
Depending on the source, it seems the final stage has been non-competitive since 1970 or 1975.
But nowhere can I find WHY. Apparently there is nothing in the official rules that declares the final stage non-competitive.
So the way I see it, if Pereiro, Kloden, Sastre, Evans or Menchov decided to break, and beat the peleton (assuming Landis stays in there) by the required margin, there is nothing to stop him being declared the winner.
Can somebody tell me why this is not the case?