John Wilkins wrote on 7 Sep 2003:
Quoted message said:CLONEBEAR COOL-IDIOTKA said:How did we get language?
Why can't adults pick up a language with no effort?
Quoted message said:There are two competing hypotheses - one is that we have an innate "language acquisition device"
that is a kind of cognitive module from when we first evolved language. This enables infants to
infer the structure of an underdetermined syntax and grammar from adult examples, but which once
trained does not allow the later acquisition of another language easily or as fully as those
learned early. This is the Chomsky-Pinker approach.
Neither Chomsky, nor Pinker suggests that acquiring one language is what prevents the acquisition of
another one later on. They both happily agree that two (or more) languages can be acquired with
native proficiency (bilingualism) if an individual has the necessary exposure to each within the
critical period for language development. How well a language is acquired is a function of the age
at which the language learner is exposed to the input, not whether they have previously acquired a
language. The critical period for language is extremely well documented, as are critical periods
associated with other systems of the mind/brain.
Quoted message said:
Another, and to my mind more satisfying, version is that we are generally unspecialised at
learning *anything*, and that our *languages* are so structured as to be learnable by a "naive"
brain; they have become so because they evolved by a cultural selection process - those that
became too baroque for naive brains to learn either simplified or became extinct. This case rests
on neurological evidence, and the difference to artificial languages (like maths) that are
learned at the ages after the natural languages are learned. This is the view put forward by
Terence Deacon.
The 'Chomsky-Pinker hypothesis' you described is a proposed explanation for why adults have more
trouble acquiring languages, but Deacon's theory is about how language evolved, so in what sense are
these "competing hypotheses"?
The opinions of the real Chomsky and the real Pinker are actually quite different from one another
on the issue of language evolution. The very little that Chomsky has written on that subject
indicates that he believes that language is probably an exaptation or a spandrel rather than an
adaptation. Pinker on the other hand, has made it very clear that he regards language as a
biological adaptation.
Quoted message said:The question why language evolved is answered by Deacon thus: apes and primates in general have
a symbolic capacity roughly equivalent to the encephalisation quotient of their brain:body
ratio. Primates have this in a greater ratio than most mammals. But the human ratio is off the
primate scale.
Actually, Deacon argues that from the point of view of language the relevant difference between
human and non-human primates is in the ratio of prefrontal cortex to overall brain size. There is a
nice diagram on page 217 of his book The Symbolic Species comparing the proportions of human brain
regions with a 'typical' ape.
Quoted message said:Deacon argues that we coevolved with languages; in effect we evolved to adapt to communicating
with each other. The book is _The symbolic species_ and I recommend it.
Deacon's argument is that the language acquisition device (or the brain generally) co-evolved with
culturally transmitted languages. Each forms an essential part of the environment that selects the
other. What makes one variant of a language easier to learn than another depends on the nature of
the language acquisition device, and what makes one variant of the language acquisition device
better at learning languages depends on the kinds of languages that it is likely to be exposed to.
This theory is a good starting point in my opinion but leaves an enormous amount of the detail
unexplained. For instance, it explains almost none of the grammatical universals that we observe in
the world's languages.
H.
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