"Actually you are the first person to bring up this issue"



Originally posted by Peter
Carl Fogel wrote:

> Peter <[email protected]> wrote in message
> news:<Lcv8c.87617$1p.1331107@attbi_s54>...
>
> [snip Carl and Peter and Lord Kelvin]
>
> Dear Peter,
>
> Thanks for the calculations. While the mathematics are
> beyond me, I can at least return the favor by a spattering
> of lurid biographical quotes and sites about Lord Kelvin
> that might intrigue people.
>
> Some of these sites mention the various ranges for the age
> of the earth that puzzled you--Gould was just repeating
> what Lord Kelvin kept publishing.

It was the age of the sun estimate where Gould's numbers
were puzzling. He indicated a range from 100 - 500 million
years, but Kelvin's paper which I cited and you also cite
below actually gave a calculation that came out to 20
million years. Kelvin then figured that it would likely have
been hotter in earlier times and that might reduce the age
to only 10 million years. OTOH, if most of the mass were
actually in a dense core the age could be greater but
probably not as much as 100 million and certainly not as
much as 500 million. The actual probable age in his
published paper is in the range of 10 - 100 million years,
not Gould's quoted 100-500. The only time Kelvin has numbers
that large is when he's bending over backward to give as
long an age as conceivable under the stated assumptions (no
unknown energy sources), but they aren't his estimate of the
likely age.

> That some form of the meteoric theory is certainly the
> true and complete explanation of solar heat can scarcely
> be doubted, when the following reasons are considered:
>
> 1. No other natural explanation, except by chemical
> action, can be conceived,
>
> 2. The chemical theory is quite insufficient, because the
> most energetic chemical action we know, taking place
> between substances amounting to the whole sun's mass,
> would only generate about 3,000 years' heat . . .

A few paragraphs down is where he gives his probable
range: "We may, therefore, accept, as a lowest estimate
for the sun's initial heat, 10,000,000 times a year's
supply at the present rate, but 50,000,000 or 100,000,000
as possible, In consequence of the sun's greater density
in his central parts."
>
> It seems, therefore, on the whole most probable that the
> sun has not illuminated the earth for 100,000,000 years,
> and almost certain that he has not done so for 500,000,000
> years. As for the future, we may say, with equal
> certainty, that inhabitants of the earth can not continue
> to enjoy the light and heat essential to their life for
> many million years longer unless sources now unknown to us
> are prepared in the great storehouse of creation.
>
> --from Kelvin's brief essay on the age of the sun:
> http://home.att.net/~a.caimi/Kelvin.doc

Dear Peter,

Here's how I think Gould arrived at this comment
in "The Flamingo's Smile":

"He [Lord Kelvin] never ventured a precise figure
for the sun's age. He settled on a number between
100 million and 500 million years as a best
estimate, probably closer to the younger age."

This seems like a fair description of what Lord
Kelvin wrote below, which takes a bit of re-reading.
He gives no specific number, explains that he considers
100 million a "few millions," and says that "it is almost
certain" that the sun hasn't been going for 500 million
years, which Gould seems to take as an upper limit.
This 100-500 range seems to be as close as anyone
can pin things down from Lord Kelvin's remarks,
particularly when by his reckoning, it's only a few
millions:

"We may imagine that to be the case, and that he
[the sun] is continually burning from the combustion
of elements within himself; or we may imagine the
sun to be merely a heated body cooling; but imagine
it as we please, we cannot estimate more on any
probable hypothesis, than a few million years of
heat. When I say a few millions, I must say at the
same time, that I consider one hundred millions as
being a few, and I cannot see a decided reason
against admitting that the sun may have had in it
one hundred million years of heat, according to its
present rate of emission, in the shape of energy.
An article, by myself, published in Macmillan's
Magazine, for March 1862, on the age of the sun's
heat, explains results of investigation into various
questions as to possibilities regarding the amount
of the heat that the sun could have, dealing with
it as you would with a stone, or a piece of matter,
only taking into account the sun's dimensions, which
showed it to be possible that the sun may have already illuminated the earth for as many as one hundred
million years, but at the same time also rendered
it almost certain that he had not illuminated the
earth for five hundred millions of years. The estimates
here are necessarily very vague, but yet, vague as
they are, I do not know that it is possible, upon any
reasonable estimate, founded on known properties
of matter, to say that we can believe the sun has
really illuminated the earth for five hundred million
years."

On Geological Time
Transactions of the Geological Society of Glasgow,
vol. iii, 1868

http://zapatopi.net/kelvin/paper.php?id=9

While rummaging about to find the quote above,
I found the following example of Lord Kelvin's
geological theorizing, which so far I hadn't
noticed anyone mentioning in my browsing.

Based on a slowing down of the earth's rotation,
the exact amount of which he later states doesn't
matter, he calculated that the earth must have been
"all fluid not so many millions of years ago."

I suspect that it's the kind of thing that my
professor had in mind, since the physics of
rotating bodies haven't changed much.

Carl Fogel

Recently all-fluid earth:

"Now, if the earth is losing angular velocity at that
great rate, at what rate might it have been rotating
a thousand million years ago? It must have been
rotating faster by one-seventh part than at present,
and the centrifugal force must have been greater in
the ratio of the square of 8 to the square of 7, that
is, in the ratio of 64 to 49. There must have then
been more centrifugal force at the equator due to
rotation than now, in the proportion of 64 to 49.
What does the theory of geologists say to that?
There is just now at the equator one two-hundred-
and-eighty-ninth part of the force of gravity relieved
by centrifugal force. If the earth rotated seventeen
times faster bodies would fly off at the equator.
The present figure of the earth agrees closely with
the supposition of its having been all fluid not many
million years ago."

"The centrifugal force a hundred million years ago
would be greater by about 3 per cent. than it is
now, according to the preceding estimate of tidal
retardation; and nothing we know regarding the
figure of the earth and the disposition of land and
water, would justify us in saying that a body
consolidated when there was more centrifugal
force by 3 per cent. than now might not now be
in all respects like the earth, so far as we know
it at present. But it you go back to ten thousand
million years ago -- which, I believe, will not satisfy
some geologists -- the earth must have been
rotating more than twice as fast as at present --
and if it had been solid then, it must be now
something totally different from that it is. Now,
here is direct opposition between Physical
astronomy, and modern geology as represented
by a very large, very influential, and, I may also
add, in many respects, philosophical and sound
body of geological investigators, constituting
perhaps a majority of British geologists. It is quite
certain that a great mistake has been made --
that British popular geology at the present time
is in direct opposition to the principles of natural
philosophy. Without going into details, I may say
it is no matter whether the earth's lost time is
22 seconds, or considerably more or less than
22 seconds, in a century, the principle is the
same. There cannot be uniformity. The earth is
filled with evidences that it has not been going
on for ever in the present state, and that there
is a progress of events towards a state infinitely
different from the present."

http://zapatopi.net/kelvin/paper.php?id=9
 
Originally posted by Mike Jacoubowsk
> Dear Mike,
>
> Pardon an ignorant question, but I'm unfamiliar with the
> kind of downhill racing where you propose to test.
>
> While I expect that the riders roll like hell over
> frightening bumps and high-speed curves, I'm wondering how
> heavy the braking is.
>
> On James Annan's site, a braking force of 0.6 g is
> indicated as reasonable, though I haven't been able to
> find any confirmation of this for downhill dirt braking.
>
> Indeed, most of what I've found suggests that on dry level
> pavement typical bicycles brake poorly compared to typical
> cars (0.6 g versus .8
> g) and that the bicycles can only produce .6 g with fairly
> skillful riders who know how to use the front brake and
> get their weight well back in a full-out panic stop.
>
> Do downhill bicycle racers really brake that hard on rough
> dirt surfaces?
>
> Or is the emphasis on suspension, curves, and
> gritted teeth?
>
> The question may not be as silly as it sounds at first.
> Desert motorcycle racing can place surprisingly little
> emphasis on braking, and absurdly tiny drum trials brakes
> work well on nasty mountain trails. Grab as much brake as
> you'd use on flat pavement and the tire simply skids out
> from under you on a rough downhill. And typical telescopic
> front suspension pretty much stops working under heavy
> downhill braking on rough surfaces.
>
> If there isn't quite as much actual braking as everyone
> seems to think in terms of g forces, it might explain why
> a plausible theory for wheel ejection isn't matched by the
> expected numbers of ejected wheels.
>
> So what kind of braking forces do you expect? Am I
> completely mistaken about how your customers reach the
> bottom of the hill?
>
> Carl Fogel

Carl: Your question is not in the least bit ignorant. You
raise an interesting point; I truly don't know what sort of
forces come into play in a DH event. I do know they're very
significant. (OK, pause for 10 minutes while I interrogate
our resident mad-dog mountain-biker...)

Our MDMB (Mad Dog Mountain Biker), Jarvis, says that the
most extreme braking occurs in the slalom events. Steep
twisty downhills require extraordinary braking, as opposed
to DH events, where the best riders actually make minimal
use of their brakes. The forces are still significant in DH
events (people *do* get into trouble!) but not as continuous
and nasty as what you have in the slalom.

That's the best I can do for an answer. As for myself, I am
most certainly not an MDMB. Pave is more to my liking; I'm
not very pretty to watch off-road (but I'm certain I'd be a
good candidate for extreme braking maneuvers due to getting
into trouble!).

--Mike-- Chain Reaction Bicycles www.ChainReaction.com

Dear Mike,

Aha! You have a semi-tame mountain biker on your
premises. If you can lure Jarvis away from the slopes,
here's the question that perhaps the two of you can
resolve for me.

The braking forces are undoubtedly significant (screw
up and you crash), are they typically enough that the
rear tire begins to lift off the ground? That's what I
gather is the hallmark of flat pavement panic-stop
braking on road bikes decelerating at about 0.6 g.

(Given that the mountain bikes are presumably
already tilted downhill, the rear wheel should come
off the ground even more easily.)

Please assure Jarvis that I'm not belittling the braking
involved. I'm just wondering exactly what's going on.

Is the typical mountain bike deceleration as fierce as
it is on dry level pavement with road tires, with rear
tires starting to lift off the ground?

Or is the braking considerably less forceful in terms
of physics, but still significant, fierce, extreme, and
extraordinary because it's right on the edge of either
flipping the rider on his head or else having the front
tire skid out from underneath him on loose, bumpy
ground?

Obviously, I suspect that mountain bike braking is
less powerful in terms of how much force can be
applied, but I'm really wondering whether my theory
has gaping holes in it. Those fierce treads, for example,
might surprise the hell out of me, biting into smooth,
soft dirt. Or maybe at higher speeds, traction improves
in some way and the bikes manage to slow from 40
mph to 20 mph approaching a corner just as rapidly
as Jobst Brandt pouncing on a pavement turn.

Whatever you find out, please thank Jarvis for me.
(Or give him some raw meat or a look at Missy Giove's
web site--whatever's appropriate for MDMB's.)

Thanks,

Carl Fogel
 
In article <[email protected]>,
Benjamin Lewis <[email protected]> wrote:

> G. T. wrote:
>
> > Benjamin Lewis wrote:
> >> Mark Hickey wrote:
> >>
> >>> That was the beauty of the test I proposed. A bunch of
> >>> grass-roots riders on an unregulated newsgroup could
> >>> collect real data. Mike J's suggestion to test skewers
> >>> at downhill racing events is even better. No kind of
> >>> riding would produce the skewer movement more quickly.
> >> Really? As a non-mountain-biker, I wouldn't expect
> >> there to be a lot of hard front braking in this
> >> environment.
> >
> > Why would you think that?
>
> - loose surfaces don't lend themselves well to hard front
> braking. (I suppose this holds for most mountain biking
> though.)

This is true in all mountain biking, and means that you can
stop faster from a given speed on pavement with a road bike
than on dirt, possibly excepting some extremely high-
traction surfaces; I'm thinking deep sand or very tacky mud.

> - you can't brake as hard going downhill before lifting
> your rear wheel (maybe this isn't true; that's just my
> immediate intuition).

Yes, but you can slide off the back of the seat. This puts
your weight very far back.

I almost never use my rear brake on the road, and not much
more on descending trails. One issue is that once you are
descending hard enough, there is virtually no weight on the
rear wheel (this rarely-plumbed limit to braking for road
bikes is routine on mountain bikes). Mountain biking
definitely requires more delicate modulation, since it's low-
traction and if you're trying to ride fast, efficient
braking is key.

> I would have thought doing a bunch of emergency stops in a
> parking lot would be a better test, where traction does
> not become the limiting factor to braking.

Would probably create more powerful braking forces, yes.

--
Ryan Cousineau, [email protected]
http://www.sfu.ca/~rcousine/wiredcola/ President, Fabrizio
Mazzoleni Fan Club
 
Carl Fogel wrote:
>
>
> The front tire is also likely to have less traction
> downhill than on a flat stretch--the friction should be
> less, since gravity is not acting at right angles to press
> it against the ground, but instead is pressing it partly
> "forward" from the point of view of motion. (Or so it
> seems to me--I wish that some folks who know about off-
> road downhill braking physics would confirm or dispel my
> fantasies.)

You're not always pointed down a hill steep enough for
gravity to not have an effect.

>
> I've been asking about how hard the braking really is
> elsewhere in this thread and would love to see more
> comment on it. The figure of 0.6 g has been used for hard
> braking in calculations about this thread, but it seems to
> come from dry pavement stops done with excellent road
> tires and riders able to throw their weight well back in
> an absolute panic stop.
>

My panic stops on a mtn bike on fast, rocky terrain are much
shorter than my panic stops on a road bike on dry pavement.

> It seems unlikely that as much traction will be available
> on a rough downhill, particularly when heavy braking
> effectively collapses telescopic front suspension. And
> paradoxically, the best downhill bicyclists might turn out
> to be those who brake the least, being able to jump and
> corner at higher speeds.
>

Stopping quickly is just as important in downhill racing as
it is any wheeled sport with turns and obstacles.

> What I keep wondering about is whether there's a
> substantial difference between actual force (0.6 g, for
> example) and our careless impression of desperate braking
> on rough downhills. Loss of traction is not the same thing
> as braking force, whether it's on a loose descent or a
> sheet of ice.
>

Why do people wonder about stuff they've never done and
ignore those who have done it?

Greg
 
Benjamin Lewis wrote:
> G. T. wrote:
>
>
>>Benjamin Lewis wrote:
>>
>>>Mark Hickey wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>>That was the beauty of the test I proposed. A bunch of
>>>>grass-roots riders on an unregulated newsgroup could
>>>>collect real data. Mike J's suggestion to test skewers
>>>>at downhill racing events is even better. No kind of
>>>>riding would produce the skewer movement more quickly.
>>>
>>>Really? As a non-mountain-biker, I wouldn't expect there
>>>to be a lot of hard front braking in this environment.
>>
>>Why would you think that?
>
>
> - loose surfaces don't lend themselves well to hard front
> braking. (I suppose this holds for most mountain biking
> though.)

Surfaces aren't always loose.

> - you can't brake as hard going downhill before lifting
> your rear wheel (maybe this isn't true; that's just my
> immediate intuition).
>

It's very easy to lift a rear wheel on anything but the
slipperiest of surfaces.

Greg
 
carlfogel wrote:
>
>
> The braking forces are undoubtedly significant (screw up
> and you crash), are they typically enough that the rear
> tire begins to lift off the ground?

> That's what I gather is the hallmark of flat pavement panic-
> stop braking on road bikes decelerating at about 0.6 g.
>

Do you really think that 28mm narrow, high pressure tires on
pavement afford the same traction as 70mm wide, low pressure
knobby tires in nice tacky dirt or rock?

> (Given that the mountain bikes are presumably already
> tilted downhill, the rear wheel should come off the ground
> even more easily.)
>
> Please assure Jarvis that I'm not belittling the braking
> involved. I'm just wondering exactly what's going on.
>
> Is the typical mountain bike deceleration as fierce as it
> is on dry level pavement with road tires, with rear tires
> starting to lift off the ground?

>
> Or is the braking considerably less forceful in terms of
> physics, but still significant, fierce, extreme, and
> extraordinary because it's right on the edge of either
> flipping the rider on his head or else having the front
> tire skid out from underneath him on loose, bumpy ground?
>
> Obviously, I suspect that mountain bike braking is
> less powerful in terms of how much force can be
> applied, but I'm really wondering whether my theory
> has gaping holes in it.

Yes, it does.

> Those fierce treads, for example, might surprise the hell
> out of me, biting into smooth, soft dirt.

Ah, a ray of light is poking through.

Greg
 
carlfogel wrote:
> Peter wrote:
> > Carl Fogel wrote:
> > > Peter <[email protected]> wrote in message
> > > news:<Lcv8c.87617$1p.1331107@attbi_s54>...
> > >
> > > [snip Carl and Peter and Lord Kelvin]
> > >
> > > Dear Peter,
> > >
> > > Thanks for the calculations. While the mathematics
> > > are beyond me, I can at least return the favor by a
> > > spattering of lurid biographical quotes and sites
> > > about Lord Kelvin that might intrigue people.
> > >
> > > Some of these sites mention the various ranges for
> > > the age of the earth that puzzled you--Gould was
> > > just repeating what Lord Kelvin kept publishing.
> > It was the age of the sun estimate where Gould's
> > numbers were puzzling. He indicated a range from 100 -
> > 500 million years, but Kelvin's paper which I cited
> > and you also cite below actually gave a calculation
> > that came out to 20 million years. Kelvin then figured
> > that it would likely have been hotter in earlier times
> > and that might reduce the age to only 10 million
> > years. OTOH, if most of the mass were actually in a
> > dense core the age could be greater but probably not
> > as much as 100 million and certainly not as much as
> > 500 million. The actual probable age in his published
> > paper is in the range of 10 - 100 million years, not
> > Gould's quoted 100-500. The only time Kelvin has
> > numbers that large is when he's bending over backward
> > to give as long an age as conceivable under the stated
> > assumptions (no unknown energy sources), but they
> > aren't his estimate of the likely age.
> > > That some form of the meteoric theory is certainly
> > > the true and complete explanation of solar heat can
> > > scarcely be doubted, when the following reasons are
> > > considered:
> > >
> > > 1. No other natural explanation, except by chemical
> > > action, can be conceived,
> > >
> > > 2. The chemical theory is quite insufficient,
> > > because the most energetic chemical action we
> > > know, taking place between substances amounting
> > > to the whole sun's mass, would only generate
> > > about 3,000 years' heat . . .
> > A few paragraphs down is where he gives his probable
> > range: "We may, therefore, accept, as a lowest
> > estimate for the sun's initial heat, 10,000,000 times
> > a year's supply at the present rate, but 50,000,000 or
> > 100,000,000 as possible, In consequence of the sun's
> > greater density in his central parts."
> > >
> > > It seems, therefore, on the whole most probable that
> > > the sun has not illuminated the earth for
> > > 100,000,000 years, and almost certain that he has
> > > not done so for 500,000,000 years. As for the
> > > future, we may say, with equal certainty, that
> > > inhabitants of the earth can not continue to enjoy
> > > the light and heat essential to their life for many
> > > million years longer unless sources now unknown to
> > > us are prepared in the great storehouse of creation.
> > >
> > > --from Kelvin's brief essay on the age of the sun:
> > > http://home.att.ne-
> > > t/~a.caimi/Kelvin.dochttp://home.att.net/~a.caimi/K-
> > > elvin.doc
>
>
>
> Dear Peter,
>
> Here's how I think Gould arrived at this comment in "The
> Flamingo's Smile":
>
> "He [Lord Kelvin] never ventured a precise figure for the
> sun's age. He settled on a number between 100 million and
> 500 million years as a best estimate, probably closer to
> the younger age."
>
> This seems like a fair description of what Lord Kelvin
> wrote below, which takes a bit of re-reading. He gives no
> specific number, explains that he considers 100 million a
> "few millions," and says that "it is almost certain" that
> the sun hasn't been going for 500 million years, which
> Gould seems to take as an upper limit. This 100-500 range
> seems to be as close as anyone can pin things down from
> Lord Kelvin's remarks, particularly when by his reckoning,
> it's only a few millions:
>
> "We may imagine that to be the case, and that he [the sun]
> is continually burning from the combustion of elements
> within himself; or we may imagine the sun to be merely a
> heated body cooling; but imagine it as we please, we
> cannot estimate more on any probable hypothesis, than a
> few million years of heat. When I say a few millions, I
> must say at the same time, that I consider one hundred
> millions as being a few, and I cannot see a decided reason
> against admitting that the sun may have had in it one
> hundred million years of heat, according to its present
> rate of emission, in the shape of energy. An article, by
> myself, published in Macmillan's Magazine, for March 1862,
> on the age of the sun's heat, explains results of
> investigation into various questions as to possibilities
> regarding the amount of the heat that the sun could have,
> dealing with it as you would with a stone, or a piece of
> matter, only taking into account the sun's dimensions,
> which showed it to be possible that the sun may have
> already illuminated the earth for as many as one hundred
> million years, but at the same time also rendered it
> almost certain that he had not illuminated the earth for
> five hundred millions of years.

His writing style is certainly verbose, but in this passage
as in the paper itself it is clear that both 100 million and
500 million are to be taken as *upper limits* - just with
differing degrees of certainty, i.e. he's pretty sure it's
less than 100 and almost certain it's less than 500 million
years. However, Gould takes the 100 million figure and uses
it as a lower limit on the range. This is not consistent
with either Kelvin's statement above "as many as one hundred
million years" nor with the statement from his paper "It
seems, therefore, on the whole most probable that the sun
has *not* illuminated the earth for 100,000,000 years ..."

The estimates here are necessarily very vague, but
> yet, vague as they are, I do not know that it is possible,
> upon any reasonable estimate, founded on known properties
> of matter, to say that we can believe the sun has really
> illuminated the earth for five hundred million years."
>
> On Geological Time Transactions of the Geological Society
> of Glasgow, vol. iii, 1868
>
> http://zapatopi.net/kelvin/paper.php?id=9
>
> While rummaging about to find the quote above, I found the
> following example of Lord Kelvin's geological theorizing,
> which so far I hadn't noticed anyone mentioning in my
> browsing.
>
> Based on a slowing down of the earth's rotation, the exact
> amount of which he later states doesn't matter, he
> calculated that the earth must have been "all fluid not so
> many millions of years ago."
>
> I suspect that it's the kind of thing that my professor
> had in mind, since the physics of rotating bodies haven't
> changed much.

His theorizing below, while rather rambling, isn't far off
the mark either under the assumption that the interior of
the earth has no energy source keeping it hot. This line of
reasoning is discussed by Gould as the third method used by
Kelvin to put some bounds of the age of the earth. He
estimated the amount of tidal friction that would be slowing
the earth's rotation and then determined that if the earth
had solidified 10 billion years ago it would have been
spinning fast enough to result in a much more flattened
shape than is observed. I note that he really doesn't derive
an estimated age from this calculation with any precision
other than to say that the degree of flattening is
consistent with an earth that's as old as 100 million years
but inconsistent with one that's 10 billion years old or
more. Nothing wrong with his conclusion that the earth is
less than 10 billion years old. The main thrust of his
argument is summed up in the last sentence "The earth is
filled with evidences that it has not been going on for ever
in the present state, and that there is a progress of events
towards a state infinitely different from the present." This
shows that his argument is with those who were claiming a
totally steady-state view with an infinite age of the earth
with no major changes occuring over time. He was entirely
correct to have taken issue with that view even if some of
his other calculations on the ages were on the low side due
to a lack of knowledge of radioactivity and fusion.

The physics of rotating bodies hasn't changed much, but at
issue here is the question of how much the earth has
solidified. That is dependent on the source of heat in the
earth's interior and brings us right back to the energy of
radioactive decay which Kelvin did not and could not have
included in his models some decades before it was
discovered.

The discussion below by Kelvin doesn't apply to our current
model of the earth's structure with continental plates
drifting on semi-fluid portions of the mantle. But it seems
unfair to criticize his theories from the 1860s for failure
to foresee the plate tectonics of the 1960s.
>
> Carl Fogel
>
> Recently all-fluid earth:
>
> "Now, if the earth is losing angular velocity at that
> great rate, at what rate might it have been rotating a
> thousand million years ago? It must have been rotating
> faster by one-seventh part than at present, and the
> centrifugal force must have been greater in the ratio of
> the square of 8 to the square of 7, that is, in the ratio
> of 64 to 49. There must have then been more centrifugal
> force at the equator due to rotation than now, in the
> proportion of 64 to 49. What does the theory of geologists
> say to that? There is just now at the equator one two-hundred-
> and-eighty-ninth part of the force of gravity relieved by
> centrifugal force. If the earth rotated seventeen times
> faster bodies would fly off at the equator. The present
> figure of the earth agrees closely with the supposition of
> its having been all fluid not many million years ago."
>
> "The centrifugal force a hundred million years ago would
> be greater by about 3 per cent. than it is now, according
> to the preceding estimate of tidal retardation; and
> nothing we know regarding the figure of the earth and the
> disposition of land and water, would justify us in saying
> that a body consolidated when there was more centrifugal
> force by 3 per cent. than now might not now be in all
> respects like the earth, so far as we know it at present.
> But it you go back to ten thousand million years ago --
> which, I believe, will not satisfy some geologists -- the
> earth must have been rotating more than twice as fast as
> at present -- and if it had been solid then, it must be
> now something totally different from that it is. Now, here
> is direct opposition between Physical astronomy, and
> modern geology as represented by a very large, very
> influential, and, I may also add, in many respects,
> philosophical and sound body of geological investigators,
> constituting perhaps a majority of British geologists. It
> is quite certain that a great mistake has been made --
> that British popular geology at the present time is in
> direct opposition to the principles of natural philosophy.
> Without going into details, I may say it is no matter
> whether the earth's lost time is 22 seconds, or
> considerably more or less than 22 seconds, in a century,
> the principle is the same. There cannot be uniformity. The
> earth is filled with evidences that it has not been going
> on for ever in the present state, and that there is a
> progress of events towards a state infinitely different
> from the present."
>
> http://zapatopi.net/kelvin/paper.php?id=9
 
On Thu, 25 Mar 2004 15:53:54 -0800, Benjamin Lewis wrote:

>> Why would you think that?
>
> - loose surfaces don't lend themselves well to hard front
> braking. (I suppose this holds for most mountain biking
> though.)
> - you can't brake as hard going downhill before lifting
> your rear wheel (maybe this isn't true; that's just my
> immediate intuition).

Sorry, but you're way out.

My biggest concern about doing a test at a DH race would be
that almost all DHers use bolt-through axles...

--
a.m-b FAQ: http://www.j-harris.net/bike/ambfaq.htm

b.bmx FAQ: http://www.t-online.de/~jharris/bmx_faq.htm
 
James, just because I have shown through some (admittedly
amateurish) experiments that SOME combinations of disc brake
and QR can cause problems in SOME circumstances, does not
mean that I buy into every conclusion and conspiracy theory
that you have come up with.

For the record, I believe that there is an issue with the
design of SOME quick release skewers, which can cause them
to loosen under vibration. This vibration seems to be
connected with the disc brake - perhaps because of the
proximity of the disc to the dropout. Then, once the QR has
loosened, the forces resulting from the disc brake can cause
some catastrophic consequences. But I do NOT believe that
there is a problem with ALL quick releases, forks or disc
brakes. It is also a problem which I believe can be solved
in 10 seconds using a 15p jubilee clip.

So, which manufacturer would you like me (an owner of a
small Scottish bike company) to have a word with? Fox? But
they use the same magnesium alloys and dropout angles as
everyone else. A disc manufacturer? But there's not a
problem with their product. A QR manufacturer? Which one??
The person I'd really like to have a word with is the person
who built your original tandem...

Ben Cooper - Kinetics
 
Mark Hickey wrote:

> As far as the industry as a whole is concerned, there *is*
> a threshold at which the potential cost of failures
> exceeds the cost of fixing a problem. If the problem is at
> the 1/1,000,000 fork level a manufacturer might conclude
> that they'd be better off ignoring the problem since the
> redesign would likely cost more than the potential
> liability.

I am shocked that a manufacturer could be so wholly ignorant
of the law. Obviously this explains your attitude, but it
does not excuse it. I suggest you take a look at the CPSC
web site and the CPSA:

"Under the Consumer Product Safety Act (CPSA),
manufacturers, importers, distributors, and retailers must
immediately report information about potentially hazardous
products to the Commission."

"This settlement puts companies on notice that they must
notify CPSC without delay when they learn of product hazards
or consumer injuries," said Commission Chairman Hal
Stratton. "We intend to enforce these requirements
vigorously and there will be serious consequences for
companies that fail to report such information quickly. The
Commission will investigate and seek penalties against those
who violate federal safety laws."

"If in doubt, companies should always report any and all
information to the Commission that could affect the safety
of consumers," said Chairman Hal Stratton. "Companies that
fail to take such an approach expose themselves to the risk
of civil penalties."

"Judge Keep noted that not knowing about the statutory
requirement, not understanding the defect, or blaming the
problem on consumer misuse do not excuse a company from the
requirement to report a hazardous product."

How does the recent brushing aside of a rider with a
dangerous fault (as described by Avid) square with that?

And before you simply retort that the CPSC has looked into
it, and found no cause for concern, remember that this is
based on a report by LaPlante which "proves" that there is
NO risk of a failure, and the manufacturers all insisting
that they have NEVER come across a SINGLE case. Lying to the
CPSC is also an offence for which one can be sent to prison.

James
 
Ben Cooper - Kinetics wrote:

> So, which manufacturer would you like me (an owner of a
> small Scottish bike company) to have a word with?

The one who made the fork you used in your test. As you
know, all the major manufacturers claim they have never
heard of a single user ever having any similar problem with
their forks, so your _unique_ experience will undoubtedly be
fascinating for them. Please let us know when they give you
the standard "actually you are the first person to bring up
this issue" brush-off.

By all means talk to the skewer manufacturer if you think it
may be faulty, but you must be aware that there are
straightforward standards to which they should adhere and
(as far as I am aware) all commonly available skewers pass
these tests. None of them are designed to take a very large
load, and in a competent design they would not see one.

I realise it doesn't quite apply in your case, but if you
were (a) in the USA and (b) actually selling forks like
that, you would be risking a punitive fine and even jail
sentence for not reporting something that you KNOW to be a
dangerous design error. I've had email from a USA shop
owner who has also seen the problem for himself and is
very worried about his liability, but does not feel he can
"go public".

> The person I'd really like to have a word with is the
> person who built your original tandem...

Rock Lobster, USA (the fork, not the frame). Feel free to CC
me with your correspondence if you like. He made a mistake,
apologised and no serious harm was done, which is why I
didn't feel the need to take it any further (I was a bit
****** off he didn't immediately offer to cover our
resulting costs, but I can't be bothered suing him over
$200). If the major manufacturers had behaved similarly,
this would have been over very quickly as far as I am
concerned.

James
 
G.T. <[email protected]> wrote:
>carlfogel wrote:
>>That's what I gather is the hallmark of flat pavement panic-
>>stop braking on road bikes decelerating at about 0.6 g.
>Do you really think that 28mm narrow, high pressure tires
>on pavement afford the same traction as 70mm wide, low
>pressure knobby tires in nice tacky dirt or rock?

You can't have more braking than enough to lift the rear
wheel. Traction is not the limiting factor for braking of
road bicycles under normal conditions.

[And, before anyone says "ah, but I put my bottom behind the
saddle", big deal; I've lifted the rear wheel on road with
rear panniers full of heavy gear.]
--
David Damerell <[email protected]> flcl?
 
James Annan wrote:
> Mark Hickey wrote:
>
>> As far as the industry as a whole is concerned, there
>> *is* a threshold at which the potential cost of failures
>> exceeds the cost of fixing a problem. If the problem is
>> at the 1/1,000,000 fork level a manufacturer might
>> conclude that they'd be better off ignoring the problem
>> since the redesign would likely cost more than the
>> potential liability.
>
> I am shocked that a manufacturer could be so wholly
> ignorant of the law. Obviously this explains your
> attitude, but it does not excuse it. I suggest you take a
> look at the CPSC web site and the CPSA:
>

I think you are over-reacting to what Mark said and
misintepreting what the CPSC are requiring - and I speak as
someone who has spent a good portion of their life under
the oversight of the far more rigourous Food and Drug
Administration working in their highest risk category as
the person where the buck stopped. You can calculate the
probablility of a loss of all engines on a commercial
airliner - it is finite and it has happened. It does not
mean that you need to add more and more engines (the
probability still remains finite). The certification of
twin engine jets for transatlantic flights was based on
showing the probability of twin engine failure was
acceptably low, not that it was zero. A lower level of risk
could have been achieved by denying their certification and
continuing to allow only four engine jets (which have had
incidents of four engine failuires). CSPC, FDA, FAA etc are
all about risk management - risk can never be reduced to
zero so its always about minimising risk as far as is
reasonably possible.

Tony
 
Tony Raven wrote:
> James Annan wrote:
>
>>Mark Hickey wrote:
>>
>>
>>>As far as the industry as a whole is concerned, there
>>>*is* a threshold at which the potential cost of failures
>>>exceeds the cost of fixing a problem. If the problem is
>>>at the 1/1,000,000 fork level a manufacturer might
>>>conclude that they'd be better off ignoring the problem
>>>since the redesign would likely cost more than the
>>>potential liability.
>>
>>I am shocked that a manufacturer could be so wholly
>>ignorant of the law. Obviously this explains your
>>attitude, but it does not excuse it. I suggest you take a
>>look at the CPSC web site and the CPSA:
>>
>
>
> I think you are over-reacting to what Mark said and
> misintepreting what the CPSC are requiring - and I speak
> as someone who has spent a good portion of their life
> under the oversight of the far more rigourous Food and
> Drug Administration working in their highest risk category
> as the person where the buck stopped. You can calculate
> the probablility of a loss of all engines on a commercial
> airliner - it is finite and it has happened. It does not
> mean that you need to add more and more engines (the
> probability still remains finite). The certification of
> twin engine jets for transatlantic flights was based on
> showing the probability of twin engine failure was
> acceptably low, not that it was zero. A lower level of
> risk could have been achieved by denying their
> certification and continuing to allow only four engine
> jets (which have had incidents of four engine failuires).
> CSPC, FDA, FAA etc are all about risk management - risk
> can never be reduced to zero so its always about
> minimising risk as far as is reasonably possible.

Sure, but it is made explicitly clear that the ultimate
decision where to draw the line in this "risk minimisation"
is the responsibility of the CPSC and not the manufacturer
or retailer. The industry does not need "proof" of a
"significant" problem, they need reasonable grounds to
suspect that there may be one. Last month, someone phoned
them up with a clear description of an obvious hazard, which
was immmediately recognized as such by Avid, and he was
given a perfunctory brush-off by two fork manufacturers. Ben
Cooper has also demonstrated clear proof of an obvious
hazard and he refuses to "officially" tell the manufacturers
precisely BECAUSE he knows they will have to act and he
fears the consequences. The fact that this is plastered all
over the internet makes the situation more than a little
farcical, of course. If the CPSC decides that the risk is
small enough to be acceptable, then so be it. That is not my
fundamental bone of contention. Their current assessment is
based on the claims by the manufacturers that NO-ONE has
EVER experienced ANY problems of this nature, which is self-
evidently false, however much dispute there is as to its
extent or seriousness.

As for the calculation Mark Hickey proposes, it is illegal,
pure and simple. Plenty of people have been sent to prison
for insufficiently prompt notification of a hazard - have a
look at the CPSC press releases. I'm sure he doesn't apply
such standards in his business, of course, but it shocks me
to think that he could suggest that it is in any way
acceptable.

James
 
James Annan <[email protected]> wrote:

>As for the calculation Mark Hickey proposes, it is illegal,
>pure and simple. Plenty of people have been sent to prison
>for insufficiently prompt notification of a hazard - have a
>look at the CPSC press releases. I'm sure he doesn't apply
>such standards in his business, of course, but it shocks me
>to think that he could suggest that it is in any way
>acceptable.

The reaction of the manufacturers and that of the CPSC are
two different things. My point is that nearly ALL businesses
are forced to make the kind of calculations I spoke of. For
example, is it possible to make a handlebar for an MTB that
cannot fail? Yes, but it will be so heavy virtually no one
will ever buy one. So, handlebar manufacturers make a
decision based on potential liability as to how light they
can make a handlebar. All of them are in the "failure rate
> % range", but some obviously push the edge of the
> envelope further
than others.

But does the manufacturer report to the CPSC every time a
handlebar breaks? I doubt many would - even with some under-
engineering present, most failures are still going to have
been exacerbated by some other non-manufacturing event (a
previous crash, improper tightening of the stem, etc.).
And let's not forget that many manufacturers suggest
periodic replacement of handlebars, "just to be safe",
indicating that they ARE expecting failures if their
products are used a lot.

That's why the CPSC hasn't gone after your problem - they've
seen the same thing before. There have been many, many cases
where skewers unscrewed before, and those on the commission
are no doubt well aware of the fact that the vast majority
of these "failures" were not caused by a manufacturing or
design defect, but by operator error.

There's no reason for them to treat your issue any different
(yet). Sure, the "ejection force" exacerbates any
shortcoming of the skewer-bound hub - but wouldn't be
sufficient to affect a properly tightened hub/skewer.

The testing I propose would indicate that (for whatever
reason) the skewer CAN unscrew (or at least "begin to
unscrew"), which would put the issue in an entirely new
light, IMHO.

Mark Hickey Habanero Cycles http://www.habcycles.com Home of
the $695 ti frame
 
"G.T." <[email protected]> wrote in message news:<[email protected]>...
> Carl Fogel wrote:
> >
> >
> > The front tire is also likely to have less traction
> > downhill than on a flat stretch--the friction should be
> > less, since gravity is not acting at right angles to
> > press it against the ground, but instead is pressing it
> > partly "forward" from the point of view of motion. (Or
> > so it seems to me--I wish that some folks who know about
> > off-road downhill braking physics would confirm or
> > dispel my fantasies.)
>
> You're not always pointed down a hill steep enough for
> gravity to not have an effect.
>
> >
> > I've been asking about how hard the braking really is
> > elsewhere in this thread and would love to see more
> > comment on it. The figure of 0.6 g has been used for
> > hard braking in calculations about this thread, but it
> > seems to come from dry pavement stops done with
> > excellent road tires and riders able to throw their
> > weight well back in an absolute panic stop.
> >
>
> My panic stops on a mtn bike on fast, rocky terrain are
> much shorter than my panic stops on a road bike on dry
> pavement.
>
> > It seems unlikely that as much traction will be
> > available on a rough downhill, particularly when heavy
> > braking effectively collapses telescopic front
> > suspension. And paradoxically, the best downhill
> > bicyclists might turn out to be those who brake the
> > least, being able to jump and corner at higher speeds.
> >
>
> Stopping quickly is just as important in downhill racing
> as it is any wheeled sport with turns and obstacles.
>
> > What I keep wondering about is whether there's a
> > substantial difference between actual force (0.6 g, for
> > example) and our careless impression of desperate
> > braking on rough downhills. Loss of traction is not the
> > same thing as braking force, whether it's on a loose
> > descent or a sheet of ice.
> >
>
> Why do people wonder about stuff they've never done and
> ignore those who have done it?
>
> Greg

Dear Greg,

We wonder about such things precisely because we haven't
done them. And it leads to interesting responses and further
questions.

If, as you indicate, you can indeed stop with much greater
force on a rocky descent on a mountain bike than you can
stop with a touring bike on flat dry pavement, should it
follow that you can stop even faster on flat dry pavement?
That is, do treaded tire mountain bikes have a tremendous
braking advantage on the road?

Incidentally, do you have any figures? A 0.6 g pavement
stop, for example, is usually shown as stopping in 20 feet
from 20 mph. If your bike has a speedometer, you could find
a convenient downhill stretch, pick a mark, approach it at
about 20 mph, and let us know how far past it you end up.

Thanks,

Carl Fogel
 
G.T. wrote:
>
> My panic stops on a mtn bike on fast, rocky terrain are
> much shorter than my panic stops on a road bike on dry
> pavement.
>

Using a tree is cheating ;-)

Anyone remember Travis and his 4G stops off-road?

Tony
 
James Annan wrote:
>
> Sure, but it is made explicitly clear that the ultimate
> decision where to draw the line in this "risk
> minimisation" is the responsibility of the CPSC and not
> the manufacturer or retailer.

That's not how it works

Tony
 
Simon Brooke <[email protected]> wrote in message news:<[email protected]>...
> in message <[email protected]>, Benjamin
> Lewis ('[email protected]') wrote:
>
> > G. T. wrote:
> >
> >> Benjamin Lewis wrote:
> >>> Mark Hickey wrote:
> >>>
> >>>> That was the beauty of the test I proposed. A bunch
> >>>> of grass-roots riders on an unregulated newsgroup
> >>>> could collect real data. Mike J's suggestion to test
> >>>> skewers at downhill racing events is even better. No
> >>>> kind of riding would produce the skewer movement more
> >>>> quickly.
> >>> Really? As a non-mountain-biker, I wouldn't expect
> >>> there to be a lot of hard front braking in this
> >>> environment.
> >>
> >> Why would you think that?
>
> If high braking forces weren't possible, MTBs would still
> be using caliper brakes - there wouldn't have been any
> push for progressively more effective braking
> technologies.
>
> > - loose surfaces don't lend themselves well to hard
> > front braking. (I suppose this holds for most mountain
> > biking though.)
>
> Not all off-road surfaces are loose. I do a lot of my
> riding on big granite outcrops. Even on loose surfaces
> large, knobbly tyres can deliver a lot of grip.
>
> > - you can't brake as hard going downhill before lifting
> > your rear wheel (maybe this isn't true; that's just my
> > immediate intuition).
>
> You get your **** off the saddle and hang it over the back
> wheel. Obviously there are limits, but you'd be surprised
> how steeply you can safely descend.

Dear Simon,

I vaguely recall comments that disk brakes are popular for
off-road bicycling not so much because they offer increased
braking power, but because they get the brake surface up out
of the muck that ruins rims from caliper braking, because
they offer smoother control, and because they can offer
increased mechanical advantage for the same braking force
(your forearm muscles last longer).

While wide knobby tires offer grip, what I'm wondering is
whether they offer enough grip for greater braking than
normal thin smooth street tires on flat dry pavement. As I
understand it, street bikes are limited by the force that
the brake can apply and by how well the rider can avoid
flipping over, not by loss of traction on the front wheel.

That is, ridiculously steep slopes can be descended quite
slowly trials-fashion, but I'm not sure that this is the
same force involved in a 0.6 g flat stop from 20 mph in 20
feet. Frequently, there is no deceleration on a trials-type
descent, just a steady rate. This must apply some steady
force to counter the equally steady force of gravity acting
at an angle, but I have no idea whether this amounts to as
much as the 0.6 g forces used in James Annan's example for
the wheel ejection.

I suspect that the kind of braking involved will turn out to
be trickier than presented so far, which is why I keep
asking about it.

Do disk brakes on bicycles actually offer more braking force
than rim caliper brakes? If so, is the greater force useful?
That is, would a street bike be able to stop shorter with a
disk brake than with a caliper brake?

Carl Fogel
 
Mark Hickey wrote:

> But does the manufacturer report to the CPSC every time a
> handlebar breaks? I doubt many would

Do they say "actually you are the first person to bring up
this issue" and then ignore it? Do they quite deliberately
and cynically build up a myth of "always operator error" in
order to dissuade reports and get themselves off the awkward
hook of having to investigate those that they get?

> The testing I propose would indicate that (for whatever
> reason) the skewer CAN unscrew (or at least "begin to
> unscrew"), which would put the issue in an entirely new
> light, IMHO.

Ben has already proved that the skewer CAN unscrew. I
thought you had already admitted as much, but were insisting
that it has to be a "significant" failure rate, according to
some definition of "significant that you have persistently
refused to define.

James