Assuming that Landis did take testosterone prior to stage 17 (that is what
the evidence indicates), does this make any sense? He needed a miracle at
that point and if the truth is the same as what the available evidence
indicates, would any rational biker needing a miracle at that point chose
testosterone? My (limited) understanding of this stuff is that the effects
of doping with testosterone are primarily long term. There seems to be some
anecdotal evidence of positive, short term effects (and maybe Floyd has
personal experience with the substance and had reason to believe that it
would be helpful) - maybe.
I'm just curious as to whether or not the most obvious interpretation of the
available evidence makes any sense.
A related question. If Landis did take the drug surely he would know that
this was going to show up in testing down the road. In this case I would
expect anyone with an IQ higher than their age would be concocting a better
story than the one that we have been hearing from the Landis crowd.
From my position of limited knowledge, the way this has played out doesn't
make sense. But I will admit that 'the French lab did it' seems equally
unlikely.
Thanks.
dave